On Fri, 02 Jun 2006 17:05:26 +0200, =?windows-1252?Q?Marcos_Ag=FCero?= said:
> ad@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx escribió:
> > That is why the definition of ?damage? is so important. If there is no
> > impairment to the integrity and availability of the network, then there
> > is no crime.
> So, It's seems that portscanning is not a crime but, what if I scan a
> network and sell/trade/lend the results to some guy that will cause that
> impairment to the network? Is it a crime to sell such information?
At least in the US, it's a slam dunk, and one of the primary ways that
hackers get taken down (quite possibly as many as under 1030(a)(5) which
covers actually hacking in yourself).
18 USC 1030 (a)(6):
(6) knowingly and with intent to defraud traffics (as defined in section 1029)
in any password or similar information through which a computer may be accessed
without authorization, if:
(A) such trafficking affects interstate or foreign commerce; or
(B) such computer is used by or for the Government of the United States; [1]
"passwords or similar information". If it's info that lets the guy hack in,
like "the box is vulernable to MS06-229", you're probably in trouble. There's
more than a few script kiddies now walking around with a criminal record
because they got caught copying files of Windows password hashes around so they
could run a password cracker on them.
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